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evanb
2008-07-03 14:25:31
p --absolutely must-- be self-adjoint, because it is observable. The only boundary conditions that we need to apply is that \psi is square-integrable (goes to zero quick enough that the boundary term is ignored), which holds true for a harmonic potential. From this, you can deduce that a is not hermitian, eliminated II. For the last piece, "doesn't the fact that a and the hamiltonian have different eigenvalues in this way mean that they don't commute?" That's a weirdly-phrased question, mainly because you don't explain what "this way" is supposed to mean. However, if you know that the eigenstates of the ladder operators are coherent states and the eigenstates of the hamiltonian are NOT coherent states (they are stationary states), that is enough to say that H and a do not commute, eliminating I and leaving (C) as the answer.
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evanb
2008-07-02 14:55:47
"too smart", not "to smart"
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evanb
2008-07-02 14:55:19
They're trying to lure you into computing how much power is emitted by the oven, then focus the light into a smaller area, so you have a larger power flux, then absorb that power into the sample. Of course, we're to smart for that trap!
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evanb
2008-07-02 13:59:18
At r = 0, the field must be zero, because an infinitely-small amperian loop contains no current. At r=c, the field must be zero, because the inner current and the outer current cancel out. The only graph that satisfies these two contraints is B.
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evanb
2008-07-02 13:50:36
See Griffith's page 358. However, the stored momentum is dependent on \vec{E} \cross \vec{B}, so the stored momentum could be dependent on d, through \vec{E}.
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evanb
2008-07-01 17:22:24
Unfortunately, the way would know it works is by doing the general relativity. You can deduce that in the Schwarzschild metric for a point mass, any timelike or null (lightlike) trajectory (ie. any trajectory that a particle might take) that starts within R = 2M will ever wind up outside of R = 2M ( G = c = 1). Un-unfortunately, GR reproduces lots of "Newtonian" results. You can even do most cosmology with Newtonian math. Why does that work? Because someone did it fully-general-relativistically and found that the math wound up the same...
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evanb
2008-06-30 16:38:53
Call each spherical harmonic | l, m >. We know, because spherical harmonics are orthonormal, that < \lambda, \mu | l, m > = \delta_{\lambda l}\delta_{\mu m} The operator we want to apply is { 1 if l = 5, 0 if l not = 5 } Applying that operator to any ket | l m > yields zero if l isn't 5, and yields | 5 m > if l IS 5. Taking < \psi | operator | \psi > gives us the following: (5 <1 1| + 3 < 5 1 | + 2 <5 -1| ) / \sqrt{38} * ( 3 | 5 1> + 2 |5 -1>)/$\sqrt{38} Contracting, that yields, ( 3^2 <5 1| 5 1> + 2^2 <5 -1|5 -1> ) / 38 Simplifying, (9+4)/38 = 13/38, which is answer (C).
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evanb
2008-06-30 13:38:24
Yes, a safer choice is to track seconds. [G] is m^3 / kg s^2 [h] is J s which is kg m^2 / s [c] is m/s. We MUST eliminate seconds, so there must be a division in our answer. Thus, the answer is E.
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evanb
2008-06-30 11:50:46
Just a small typo: you need braces for F_{air} so that it doesn't look like F_air
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R0BB23
2008-06-30 08:46:19
\sum F_y = \mu N-m_b g=0 \mu N=m_b g N=m_b a a=g/\mu F=(m_a+m_b)a F=(m_a+m_b)g/\mu
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HariSeldon
2008-06-29 11:30:45
You can also eliminate E with the knowledge that electrons have a relatively short interaction length, while muons travel much farther before interacting.
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joe35
2008-06-27 14:56:42
This is a nice solution. It might help to clarify that S_1 and S_2 refer to the Lorentz scalar distance, S^2 between two events, which is the same in all inertial reference frames.
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evanb
2008-06-27 14:46:04
The wave function of 1s is even, the perturbative operator = - q * Efield * Z is odd. Thus the first-order matrix element must be zero.
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evanb
2008-06-26 19:37:47
Actually, that's not enough to satisfy that it's a Lorentz transformation. Consider: x' = 10x - 1t t' = 10t - x According to the official solution, this would be a Lorentz transformation with \gamma=10 and \beta=0.1, but we can check that such a transformation is unphysical: \gamma and \beta are not independent, and because $\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-0.1^2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{0.99}} << 10 = \gamma$, this is not a legit Lorentz transform. However, since the numbers here --happen-- to be 5/4 and 3/4, we're in the clear.
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evanb
2008-06-26 19:26:17
At the top, the energy is mgh, and at the bottom it is .5mv^2. This leaves us with v^2 = 2 g h, and a = v^2 / r, but r = h, so a = 2g.
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sirius
2008-06-25 13:09:59
nevermind, i misread which had the >=, i agree it is (B)
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sirius
2008-06-25 13:05:18
the potential is 0 from 0 to a. it says so in the problem. this is a particle in an infinite square well, and answer (E) is the only answer that makes sense.
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evanb
2008-06-25 12:56:18
It turns out that it doesn't matter what E_1 is equal to... it adds a factor of e^{E_1/kT} to the numerator and to all the factors in the denominator. Better off setting it to zero, in my opinion, but in terms of the physics it doesn't make one lick of difference: it's like setting your h in mgh potential energy to 0 on the ground. See radicaltyro's comment on moonrazor's solution for evidence.
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evanb
2008-06-25 12:47:47
A way to do Andresito's method without math. With a \gamma of 100, the thing is definitely ultra-relativistic, meaning that it could effectively be treated as an almost-zero-mass particle. Photons have p = E/c, so this particle should have approximately p = E / c = 100 m c
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sirius
2008-06-24 14:27:26
i have never heard of conducting cavities, what topic is this from? is there a text i should look at for this?
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evanb
2008-06-24 11:56:52
How about a uniform-density infinite-plane slab. So, it would be thick and the region of interest would be from the middle of the slab to the edge of the slab.
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evanb
2008-06-23 19:40:06
Yes, 3s should be read as 3s^1. Otherwise, you wouldn't write it at all, or you would specify 3s^2.
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evanb
2008-06-23 19:11:02
Dammit, the preview de-TYPO-ified my entry. Yes, (B) should be >= and not <= and it should be the answer, not (E)
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evanb
2008-06-23 19:07:46
yes.
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evanb
2008-06-23 18:57:17
A useful fact is that c is just about 1 foot per nanosecond. 3 meters is about 10 feet, so the flight takes about 10 nanoseconds, so we have to be able to resolve on the order of 1 nanosecond to say for sure.
 
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